ATPL Question Bank

An Airline Transport Pilot License (ATPL) question bank is an essential resource for aspiring airline pilots working toward the highest level of pilot certification. Usually offered by specialized providers, these question banks compile realistic, exam-style questions, covering Aviation Law, Flight Planning and Monitoring, Principles of Flight, and more.

Pilots use them to assess knowledge, practice real-time scenarios, and pinpoint areas for further study.

Their main advantage is familiarity with exam formats and question types, reducing anxiety and boosting success rates. Many training organizations regularly update these banks, ensuring content remains aligned with regulatory changes.

They are most commonly associated with the European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA), where students must pass 14 theory exams before progressing. However, they also benefit other licensing authorities requiring advanced written exams.

Remember, while question banks are helpful, pair them with solid study materials and flight school guidance. Ultimately, the goal is not passing exams, but building deep aviation theory.

Combined with good ground instruction and consistent revision, an ATPL question bank becomes invaluable for success.

This structured approach enhances your understanding of complex topics and strengthens confidence before stepping into advanced flight training. Investing time in an ATPL question bank is a strategic move for pilot candidates.

ATPL Question Bank - A320 Type Rating & General

A320 Type Rating

DC Bat Bus can be supplied by:

A. DC Bus 1 or batteries
B. DC Bus 1, DC Bus 2 or batteries
C. DC Bus 2 or batteries
D. DB Bus 1 only.

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Window heat operation begins:

A. Autoatically after the first engine start.
B. If the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT push button is selected ON by the crew prior to engine start.
C. Both A and B are correct.
D. Windows are not heated on the A320.

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What is the normal pressure in the hydraulic system?

A. 500 psi
B. 3000 psi
C. 1000 psi
D. 2000 psi.

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When will the Flight Director bars flash?

A. When a reversion occurs.
B. When loss of LOC or G/S signal in LAND mode.
C. All of the above.
D. None of the above.

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What is Alpha floor protection?

A. It helps prevent the aircraft from stalling and protects agains windshear encounters during takeoff, approach and other phases of the flight.
B. It is a function of the flight control laws to prevent the aircraft from stalling.
C. It helps prevent the aircraft from stalling by limiting the angle of bank at low airspeeds.
D. It helps prevent the aircraft from stalling by limiting the angle of climb at high airspeeds.

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The nose landing gear of the A320 retracts backwards.

A. True
B. False

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What does amber SPEED BRAKES mean on lower ECAM?

A. Speed brakes have a fault.
B. Speed brakes are extended and flap handle is not at 0.
C. Speed brakes are extended and engines are not at idle.
D. All of the above.

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The idle setting on the aircraft is capable of modulating due to certain conditions. During descent, what might cause the IDLE N1 setting to increase?

A. The slats/flaps are extended.
B. Engine and/or wing anti-ice ON.
C. Both A and B are correct.
D. Too hot outside air temperature.

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What is the function of the FACs?

A. Rudder and Yaw damping inputs, Flight envelope and speed computations.
B. Rudder and Yaw damping inputs.
C. Rudder and Yaw damping inputs and windshear protection.
D. Rudder and Yaw damping inputs, Flight envelope and speed computations, and windshear protection.

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What does an amber OXY on the ECAM Doors mean?

A. The crew supply switch is turned off and/or oxygen pressure is less than 400 psi.
B. The oxygen pressure is less than 600 psi.
C. The crew supply switch is turned off.
D. The oxygen pressure is less than 100 psi.

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The anti skid and nose wheel switch is set to off:

A. Nose wheel steering only is deactivated
B. Anti skid and nose wheel steering are deactivated
C. Anti skid only is deactivated
D. Anti skid provides a fixed aircraft deceleration.

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When the APU master switch is released, a normal APU shutdown occurs.

A. Without a delay in all cases.
B. With a delay in all cases
C. With a delay if the bleed air was in use.
D. Only after the main batteries are switched off.

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The hot air fault light illuminates on the air conditioning panel:

A. The hot air press. reg. valve opens and the trim air valves close
B. The hot air press. reg. valve closes and the trim air valves open
C. The hot air press. reg. valve closes and the trim air valves close
D. The hot air press. reg. valve opens and the trim air valve open.

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The minimum theoretical pavement width for a 180° turn on A320 is:

A. 75 m
B. 30 m
C. 32 m
D. 45 m

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What is the purpose of the RMPs?

A. VHF and HF radio communication systems only.
B. Provide radio navigation systems only.
C. Automatically tune navaids as required by the flight plan.
D. Give the flight crew control of all VHF and HF radio communication systems, and to provide back up to the FMGSs for controlling radio navigation systems.

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In normal elextrical configuration, how is DC ESS bus suuplied

A. From TR 1 via DC bus 1 and DC Bat Bus
B. From ESS TR.
C.From TR 2
D. From Batt 2.

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Select the correct statement:

A. DMC1 supplies data to PFD 1 and ND 2.
B. DMC 1 supplies data to PFD 1, ND 1 and EWDU (Upper ECAM)
C.DMC 1 supplies data to ND 1 and ND 2.
D. DMC 1 supplies data to PFD 1 and PFD 2.

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What additional external warning are activated in case of an APU fire (on the ground)?

A. Red APU fire light comes on and an external warning horn sounds
B. An external warning horn sounds
C. A fire bell rings
D. No additional warning.

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The pitch direct law is

A. A load factor demand with no protection
B. A direct sidestick to elevator relationship
C. A direct sidestick to elevator relationship with automatic pitch trim
D. Achieved through the THS using manual pitch trim control.

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What does it mean when the ADR fault light illuminates steady on the ADIRS CDU?

A. The respective IR is lost
B. No present position entry after 10 minutes
C. Alignment has been completed
D. A fault is detected in air data reference

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How many pumps are there in the wing or center tanks?

A. One fuel pump in each tank
B. Two fuel pumps in each tank
C. There is no fuel pump because the tanks are air pressurised
D. Two fuel pumps only for all tanks.

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Normal hydraulic power is provided by:

A. Engine driven pumps for all systems.
B. Engine driven pumps for green and yellow, electric pump for blue, electric pump for yellow.
C. Electric pumps for blue and yellow, engine driven pumps for green.
D. Engine driven pumps for green and blue, electric pump for yellow.

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What happens when the wing anti-ice p/b is set to ON on the ground?

A. The wing anti-ice control valves do not open
B. The wing anti-ice control valves open for 30 seconds as a test sequence
C. Wing anti-ice control valves open if a pneumatic supply is available, and remain open
D. Wing anti-ice control valves open provided OAT < 10°C.

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Landing gear can be extended by:

A. Green system or yellow in stand by
B. Green system or mechanical gravity extension
C. Green system for unlocking, gravity extension and green system for downlocking
D. Blue system or mechanical gravity extension

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With the regulator set at the 100% position the mask is supplied with?

A. A mixture of cabin air and oxygen depending on cabin altitude
B. Pure oxygen at all cabin altitudes, on demand
C. Undiluted oxygen at a continuous flow
D. Pure oxygen above 30,000 ft.

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With engines and APU running and ABU bleed valve selected on, select the correct statement:

A. Engine bleed valves open, X bleed valve opens, APU bleed valve closes
B. Engine bleed valves close, X bleed valve opens, APU bleed valve opens
C. Engine bleed valves open, X bleed valve closes, APU bleed valve opens
D. Engine bleed valves close, X bleed valve closes, APU bleed valve opens.

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The thrust rating limit is computed by:

A. The ECU according to the AP/FD mode
B. The FADEC (ECU) according to the thrust lever position
C. The FMGC according to the ECU order
D. The FMGC according to the AP/FD mode

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The fasten seat belt, no smoking and exit sign illuminate:

A. Only when the flight crew puts the switches in the ON position
B. When the appropriate switches are either ON or OFF and/or excessive cabin altitude is detected
C. Only for takeoff and landing
D. Only during the rejected takeoff

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Smoke detection systems are installed in:

A. The avionics bay and cargo compartments
B. Avionics bay, cargo compartments and lavatories
C. Avionics bay, cargo compartments, galleys and lavatories
D. Each cabin compartment and cargo compartment

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General Aviation

Low visibility take-off operations is

A. take-off operations with visibility conditions of less than 550 m RVR
B. take-off operations with visibility conditions of less than 600 m RVR
C. take-off operations with visibility conditions of less than 400 m RVR
4. During LVTO the RVR is 125m. How many centerline light intervals should

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During LVTO the RVR is 125m. How many centerline light intervals should the pilot be able to see?

A. 6
B. 8
C. 7
D. 9

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Assuming correct pilot position, the available take-off visual segment on A320 with RVR 125m is:

A. 125m
B. 90m
C. 112,5m

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Standard callout “continue” must be announced

A. at MINIMUM for CAT II,CAT III with DH APPR
B. at 100 FT AGL for CAT III without DH APPR
C. both are corect

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For CAT III operations utilizing a fail-operational landing system with a DH, a pilot should be able to see at least one center line light.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE

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During an Autoland approach, on the PFD what does a flashing FD mean?

a. An excessive LOC and / or G/S deviation
b. The loss of LOC and / or G/S transmitter
c. A landing capability downgrade has just occurred

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During an Autoland approach, on the PFD what does a flashing LOC / GS scales mean?

a. This is normal indication
b. The loss of LOC and / or G/S transmitter or an excessive LOC and / or G/S deviation
c. A landing capability downgrade has just occurred

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During an ILS procedure, if the information transmitted by the appropriate service and received by the crew contains parameters below the crew’s operational minimums, the point beyond which the approach must not be continued is:

a. The middle marker
b. Final descent point (glide slope interception)
c. 1000 ft above the aerodrome
d. The FAF

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You can check if you AFS (Auto Flight System) system is currently fail operational

a. In the MCDU
b. On the FMA
c. Nowhere, it is only a certification document
d. On the MD

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You have just completed an LVO approach and landing. When can you report that the runway is vacated

A: once you start taxi on any of the convenient taxiways, available to exit the runway
B: once you are fully parked on the designated stand
C: once the airplane speed is bellow 40kts
D: once you pass the color-coded (green and yellow) taxiway center lights

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For landing CAT III without DH Autoland and automatic rollout are

A. Mandatory
B. Recommended
C. Depends on captain’s discretion

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The AUTOLAND red warning may triggered

A. Below 100 FT
B. Below 1000 FT
C. Below 200 FT
D. Below DH

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For operating CAT III minima with a DH < 50ft

A) The whole approach light system must be working with a backup power system on standby
B) The last 300m of the approach light system must be working
C) The last 900m of the approach light system must be working
D) The approach light system can be U/S

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After landing you see the centerline alternating white and red. How far are you from the end of the runway?

A) Between 600m and 300m
B) Between 900m and 600m
C) Between 900m and 300m
D) Less than 300m

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In CAT III APPR without DH, the decision to continue depends on:

A. Visual references
B. Operational status of the A/C
C. LAND mode on FMA

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Alert height is the point

A. After which if a single failure affects the fail-operational landing system the approach and
Autoland can be continued
B. After which if a single failure affects the fail-operational landing system the approach and
Autoland cannot be continued
C. After which if a single failure affects the fail-operational landing system the Commander decides if
approach and Autoland can be continued

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Alert height is Define by Airbus and

A. applies for CAT III with DH
B. applies for CAT III without DH
C. applies for CAT II

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Adverse Weather

The protection time of an anti-icing fluid depends on: The protection time of an anti-icing fluid depends on

1. The type and intensity of the showers;
2. The ambient temperature;
3. The relative humidity;
4. The direction and speed of the wind;
5. The temperature of the airplane skin;
6. The type of fluid, its concentration and temperature;”

A. ALL
B. 1, 3, 5
C. 2, 3, 6
D. 2, 4, 6

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The terminal VOR transmits the following weather data. When do you expect icing?

A. Outside Air Temperature (OAT): + 15oC Dew Point (DEWP): -5oC
B. Outside Air Temperature (OAT): + 25oC Dew Point (DEWP): +5oC
C. Outside Air Temperature (OAT): – 10oC Dew Point (DEWP): -15oC
D. Outside Air Temperature (OAT): + 10oC Dew Point (DEWP): +7oC

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What is the best action a pilot can take to minimize wing contamination by snow, frost, or ice?

A. Hangar the aircraft
B. Apply an approved anti-icing product in advance of the freezing precipitation
C. Place a tarp over the aircraft
D. Install de-icing equipment

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When anti-icing has been applied, when must you make sure it is still active?

A. At brake release for take-off
B. When clear of icing conditions
C. On rotation
D. Until one can use one’s own anti-icing equipment

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When does the anti-icing holdover time begin on a 2 step procedure?

A. From the end of the anti-icing procedure
B. When all icing deposits have been removed from the airframe
C. From the start of the anti-icing procedure
D. From the start of the de-icing procedure

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When planning a flight in icing conditions, what are the requirements?

A. Aircraft to be equipped with approved anti-icing equipment
B. Apply anti-icing fluid
C. A Met officer will decide if the flight can take place
D. Take off anyway and hope for the best

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When taking off, in winter conditions, the wing contamination by ice or frost will cause the following effects:

1. An increase in the take-off distance;
2. A decrease of the take-off run;
3. An increase in the stalling speed;
4. A decrease of the stalling speed;
5. A decrease of the climb gradient;”

A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 3, 5
C. 2, 3, 4
D. ALL

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Which of the following requirements should be met when planning a flight with icing conditions:

A. The aircraft shall be equipped with approved ice-protection systems
B. The flight should be planned so that a change of cruising level can be initiated rapidly
C. The aircraft shall before flight be sprayed with anti-iing fluid
D. A meteorologist shall decide whether the flight may be performed without ice-protection systems

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Who is responsible for ensuring that snow, frost, or ice is removed from an aircraft?

A. Aircraft owner
B. Fixed base operator (FBO)
C. airport authority
D. Pilot in command

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In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the highest accumulation rate?

A. Freezing drizzle.
B. Cumulus clouds with below freezing temperatures.
C. Freezing rain.

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The conditions necessary for the formation of cumulonimbus clouds are a lifting action and

A. unstable air containing an excess of condensation nuclei.
B. either stable or unstable air.
C. unstable, moist air.

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What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?

A. Roll cloud.
B. Frequent lightning.
C. Continuous updraft.

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Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?

A. Maximum growth rate of the clouds.
B. Precipitation beginning to fall.
C. The appearance of an anvil top.

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What conditions are necessary for the formation of thunderstorms?

A. Lifting force, moist air, and extensive cloud cover.
B. High humidity, high temperature, and cumulus clouds.
C. High humidity, lifting force, and unstable conditions.

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Upon encountering severe turbulence, which flight condition should the pilot attempt to maintain?

A. Constant altitude and airspeed.
B. Level flight attitude.
C. Constant angle of attack.

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During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts?

A. Mature.
B. Dissipating.
C. Cumulus.

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Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the

A. downdraft stage.
B. mature stage.
C. cumulus stage.

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Thunderstorms which generally produce the most intense hazard to aircraft are

A. squall line thunderstorms.
B. steady-state thunderstorms.
C. warm front thunderstorms.

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A nonfrontal, narrow band of active thunderstorms that often develop ahead of a cold front is a known as a

A. squall line.
B. prefrontal system.
C. dry line.

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If there is thunderstorm activity in the vicinity of an airport at which you plan to land, which hazardous atmospheric phenomenon might be expected on the landing approach?

A. Precipitation static.
B. Wind-shear turbulence.
C. Steady rain.

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More ATPL Sample Questions

Which ATPL question bank is the best?

There is no single “best” question bank for everyone, as each has unique features and styles. However, popular and highly regarded ATPL question banks include:
  • BGSonline (Bristol Groundschool) Known for comprehensive explanations and regular updates. Integrated with Bristol’s online learning system for students enrolled in its courses.
  • Aviation Exam Has a large, up-to-date question database and a user-friendly interface (including mobile apps). Offers detailed explanations and performance-tracking features.
  • Question Bank from PadPilot Often used alongside PadPilot textbooks; focuses on clarity and integration with its own study materials.
  • Other Providers There are several others (e.g., Aeropolit, ATPdigital) that cater to specific regional requirements or training organizations. When choosing a question bank, consider:
  • Currency/Updates: How frequently are they updated to match the latest exam question styles and regulatory changes?
  • Quality of Explanations: Do they provide thorough explanations or just the correct/incorrect answers?
  • User Interface & Practice Options: Is it easy to navigate, track your progress, and focus on weak areas?
  • Instructor/School Recommendations: If you’re enrolled in a flight school, see if they recommend a specific question bank to align with their curriculum.
However, one has to know that learning questions and answers is definately not a long-term solution. Pilots need to review their knowledge and constantly read and learn, so it's advisable to thoroughly study all ATPL subjects before going for an exam.

What is the hardest ATPL exam?

This is a very subjective question. In general, Meteorology is considered quite demanding. Principles of Flight and Fligh Planning as well. One of the "easist" is considered Air Law, even though a lot of students find it difficult.

How Many Questions are there in the ATPL exam?

The ATPL syllabus (particularly EASA) consists of 14 separate exam subjects, such as Principles of Flight, Air Law, Meteorology, Navigation, etc.
  • Each subject has its own set of questions, which can range anywhere from 20 to 80+ questions per exam.
  • The total number of questions you’ll face for all 14 subjects typically amounts to 700–800+ questions, though the exact count can change over time and may vary by authority (e.g., EASA vs. the UK CAA vs. other national CAAs).
  • Because the question pools are periodically updated, it’s crucial to use current study materials and question banks that reflect the latest regulations and question styles.

How hard is it to pass the ATPL ground school in the UK?

  • Breadth of Knowledge: ATPL ground school covers a wide range of topics, from technical subjects like Aircraft Systems and Performance to more theoretical subjects such as Flight Planning and Radio Navigation.
  • Pace & Workload: The courses are known for being intensive. Many students find that a rigorous daily study schedule is essential to keep up with the reading, practice questions, and mock exams.
  • Success Rate: While pass rates are generally reasonable, the difficulty should not be underestimated. Most training organizations provide a structured approach with practice exams, which significantly helps in passing on the first attempt.
  • Effective Study Tactics: Using a reputable question bank, attending ground school classes (online or in-person), and forming study groups are strategies many cadets use to handle the high volume of information.

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