ATPL Question Bank Air Law

ATPL Question Bank - Air Law

Air Law Sample Questions

The crew of an aeroplane are performing a turning departure. In this type of departure, straight flight is assumed until reaching a height of at least ...

A. 200 ft
B. 120 ft
C. 120 m
D. 200 m

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Aeronautical Information Service - The publication containing information about flight safety, air navigation, technical, administration or lgislative matters, published by the AIS of a state is called ...

A. Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC)
B. Aeronautical Informatio Publication (AIP).
C. NOTAM
D. AIRAC

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What is the priority category of the following messages?

‘S5-ABC cleared for takeoff’
‘S5-ABC recommend turn to 050’

A. Flight Safety Messages
B. Flight Regularity Messages
C. Communications relating to direction finding.
D. Urgency messages.

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The State that shall judge wheather a damage aircraft is airworthy, as defined by the appropriate airworthiness requirements, is the?

A. State of Registry
B. State of Design
C. State of Manufacture
D. Contracting State.

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According to ICAO 8168, regarding omnidiretional departures, you would expect NO ...

A. ATC service and sectors to fly
B. ATC service and sectors to be avoided
C. Navigation aids and sectors to fly.
D. Navigation aids and sectors to be avoided.

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Whenever a distress transmission is intercepted by a pilot-in-command of an aircraft, the pilot shall, if feasible ...

A. record the position of the transmission and proceed according to the flight.
B. Hold at the position and coordinate the SAR operation.
C. Acknowledge the distress trasmission and record the position of the aircraft in distress if given.
D. Enter into a holding pattern and wait for the instructions.

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The minimum wake turbulenec separation to be applied between a light or medium aircraft taking-off behind a heavy aircraft, from the same position on the same runways, is ...

A. 5 minutes
B. 1 minute
C. 2 minutes
D. 10 minutes.

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What is the medical class required for each license?

A. Class 2 for CPL and MPL, class 1 for PPL.
B. Class 2 for CPL, class 1 for MPL.
C. Class 1 for CPL, class 2 for MPL.
D. Class 1 for CPL and MPL, class 2 for PPL.

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An aircraft is approaching runway 12 with the intention of circling to runway 30 in class A airspace. What is the appropriate magnetic heading to initiate the circling manoeure?

A. 148 degrees magnetic
B. 158 degrees magnetic
C. 118 degrees magnetic
D. 183 degrees magnetic

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Refer to the figure. Which of the options correctly identifies the different runway designation markings?

Air Law ATPL Question bank

A. I) General design; II) Optional design; III) Parallel design; IV) Non-compliant design.
B. I) General design; II) Non-compliant design; III) Parallel design; IV) Optional design.
C. I) General design; II) Non-compliant desin; III) Optional design; IV) Parallel design.
D. I) Parallel design; II) General design; III) Optional design; IV) Non-compliant design

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An AIS is responsible for the provision of information and data concerning.

A. Air traffic control only.
B. Air traffic services.
C. Flight licenses
D. Air operations.

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A pilot is flying IFR in the upper airspace and the airspace is classified as Class C. What type of air traffic service will the pilot recieve?

A. Aeronautical information service.
B. Air traffic advisory service.
C. Traffic flow management.
D. Air traffic control.

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What does the abbreciation TA stand for?

A. Terrain Avoidance and Traffic Advisory
B. Transition Altitude and Terrain Avoidance
C. Traffic Advisory and Transition Altitude
D. Terminal Altitude and Traffic Advisory.

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According to ICAO guidelines, what is the unit that can control the apron area?

A. Aerodrome Control Tower
B. Approach Control
C. Area Control Center
D. Flight Information Center.

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The flight crew receives a call from the cabin crew through the interphone system, notifying them that a cabin crew member is held hostage by an armed man, who demands to see the Pilot-in-Command. The PIC decides that, at the moment, the flight is NOT threatened by grave and imminend danger. Consequently, the SSR transposed should be operated on mode (1)______ and code (2)______

A. (1) C; (2) 7700
B. (1) A; (2) 7500
C. (1) A; (2) 7700
D. (1) C; (2) 7500

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Consider the following statements about instrument operations on parallel runways. What is the correct for departing and arriving aircraft?

  1. Independent operations eans both runways are used exclusively for departures.
  2. Independent operations means one runway is used exclusively for departures while the other runway is used for a mixture of arrivals and departures.
  3. Mixed operations means both runways are used for mixed arrivals and departures.
  4. Dependent parallel approaches are simultaneous instrument operations
  5. Independent parallel approaches are simultaneous instrument operations
  6. Semi mixed independent parallel approaches are simulaneous instrument operations.

A. Departure: 2 and 3; Arrival: 2 and 4
B. Departure: 1 and 3; Arrival 4 and 5
C. Departure: 1 and 3; Arrival: 5 and 6
D. Departure: 2 and 3; Arrival: 4 and 6.

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You are preparing for a precision approach in a Boeing B777. According to the following information shown on the approach chart, which of the follwinng is correct choice of missed approach point?

OCH for A/B category aircraft: 400 ft
OCH for C/D category aircraft: 420 ft
(50 ft should be added for operational reasons)

A. MDH = 450 ft
B. DH = 470 ft
C. MDH = 470 ft
D. DH = 450 ft

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What is the correct definition of the no transgression zone (NTZ) used in the context of independent parallel approaches?

A. A corridor of airspace, maximum 610 m wide, located centrally between the two extended runway center lines. It extends from the nearer runway threshold to the point where 1000 ft vertical seperation is reduced
B. A corridor of airspace at least 500 m wide located centrally between th two extended runway center lines. It extends from the farthes runway threshold to the point where 1000 ft vertical separation is reduced.
C. A corridor of airspace at least 610 m wide located centrally between the two extended runway center lines. It extends from the nearer runway threshold to the point where 1000 ft vertical separation is reduced.
D. A corridor of airspsace at least 500 m wide located centrally between the two extended runway center lines. It extends from the farthest runway threshold to th point where 1500 ft certical separation is reduced.

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During the approach, the GPWS has activated and the pilot received a "PULL UP" warning. After the revision of the flight data monitoring system, the investigators saw that the aircraft was only 20 ft above the terrain. This scenario is classified as ...

A. Serious incident
B. Accident.
C. Serious Accident
D. Incident.

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When segregated operations apply on two parallel runways, how will the two runways be used?

A. One runway will be used only for takeoffs, and the other runway will be used only for landings.
B. Both runways will alternate between takeoffs and landings.
C. One runway will be used predominantly for takeoffs, with landings permitted as needed.
D. Both runways will be used exclusively for arrivals.

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Students Also Ask

Which ATPL question bank is the best?

There is no single “best” question bank for everyone, as each has unique features and styles. However, popular and highly regarded ATPL question banks include:
  • BGSonline (Bristol Groundschool) Known for comprehensive explanations and regular updates. Integrated with Bristol’s online learning system for students enrolled in its courses.
  • Aviation Exam Has a large, up-to-date question database and a user-friendly interface (including mobile apps). Offers detailed explanations and performance-tracking features.
  • Question Bank from PadPilot Often used alongside PadPilot textbooks; focuses on clarity and integration with its own study materials.
  • Other Providers There are several others (e.g., Aeropolit, ATPdigital) that cater to specific regional requirements or training organizations. When choosing a question bank, consider:
  • Currency/Updates: How frequently are they updated to match the latest exam question styles and regulatory changes?
  • Quality of Explanations: Do they provide thorough explanations or just the correct/incorrect answers?
  • User Interface & Practice Options: Is it easy to navigate, track your progress, and focus on weak areas?
  • Instructor/School Recommendations: If you’re enrolled in a flight school, see if they recommend a specific question bank to align with their curriculum.
However, one has to know that learning questions and answers is definately not a long-term solution. Pilots need to review their knowledge and constantly read and learn, so it's advisable to thoroughly study all ATPL subjects before going for an exam.

What is the hardest ATPL exam?

This is a very subjective question. In general, Meteorology is considered quite demanding. Principles of Flight and Fligh Planning as well. One of the "easist" is considered Air Law, even though a lot of students find it difficult.

How Many Questions are there in the ATPL exam?

The ATPL syllabus (particularly EASA) consists of 14 separate exam subjects, such as Principles of Flight, Air Law, Meteorology, Navigation, etc.
  • Each subject has its own set of questions, which can range anywhere from 20 to 80+ questions per exam.
  • The total number of questions you’ll face for all 14 subjects typically amounts to 700–800+ questions, though the exact count can change over time and may vary by authority (e.g., EASA vs. the UK CAA vs. other national CAAs).
  • Because the question pools are periodically updated, it’s crucial to use current study materials and question banks that reflect the latest regulations and question styles.

How hard is it to pass the ATPL ground school in the UK?

  • Breadth of Knowledge: ATPL ground school covers a wide range of topics, from technical subjects like Aircraft Systems and Performance to more theoretical subjects such as Flight Planning and Radio Navigation.
  • Pace & Workload: The courses are known for being intensive. Many students find that a rigorous daily study schedule is essential to keep up with the reading, practice questions, and mock exams.
  • Success Rate: While pass rates are generally reasonable, the difficulty should not be underestimated. Most training organizations provide a structured approach with practice exams, which significantly helps in passing on the first attempt.
  • Effective Study Tactics: Using a reputable question bank, attending ground school classes (online or in-person), and forming study groups are strategies many cadets use to handle the high volume of information.

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