ATPL Question Bank Flight Planning and Monitoring

ATPL Question Bank - Flight Planning and Monitoring

Flight Planning and Monitoring Sample Questions

Which one of the following is a type B approach?

GNSS 3D with GBAS
GNSS 3D with ABAS only
GNSS LNAV with GBAS
GNSS LNAV with ABAS only.

A. 1 and 2
B. 2 only
C. 1 only
D. 3 and 4

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For this question use annex 033-012 rev. 05.11.2004 or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1).

Flight Planning 1

Given:
Brake release mass 57500 kg
Initial FL280
average temperature during climb ISA -10°C
average head wind component 18 kt
Find: climb time for enroute climb 280/.74

A. 14 min
B. 11 min
C. 15 min
D. 13 min

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Refer to figure. Assuming the same average fuel consumption as from OBEDI to PODET, what would be the planned remaining fuel at waypoint DIMSI?

Flight Planning 2

A. 5640 kg
B. 6240 kg
C. 6840 kg
D. 960 kg

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According to ICAO, what is the lowest altitude that may be used which provides a minimum clearance of 300 m (1000 ft) above all objects located in the area contained within a sector of a circle of 46 km (25 NM) radius centered on a radio aid to navigation?

A. MCA
B. MOCA
C. MEA
D. MSA

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For this question use annex 033-036 and 033-038 rev. 05.11.2004).

Flight Planning 3

Assuming the following data below, what is the time needed to carry out such a flight?
Ground distance to be covered: 2000 NM
Cruising speed: Mach 0.82 (true airspeed 470 kts)
Headwind component: 30 kts
Planned destination landing mass: 160000 kg
Temperature: ISA
CG: 37%
Total anti-ice: ON
Pack flow: HI

A. 4 hrs 43 min
B. 5 hrs 2 min
C. 4 hrs 26 min
D. 4 hrs 10 min

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Refer to ALICANTE (LEAL) STAR Chart 10-2B from the Jeppesen GSPRM 2017. An Aircraft following the VLC 2N STAR procedure performs an emergency descent, due to cabin depressurization, 20 NM before reaching at BESOR IAF. What is the minimum permited altitude or FL along the START procedure which provides the required obstacle and terrain clearance immediately after the beginning of the emergency descent?

Flight Planning 4

A. 6900 ft
B. 7110 ft
C. FL80
D. 6110 ft

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From which of the following would you expect to find facilitation information regarding customs and health formalities?

A. ATCC
B. NAV/RAD charts
C. AIP
D. NOTAM

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Given the following information, what is the wind correction angle to be applied?

Wind= 060°/60 kts (T)
TAS = 380 kts
Variation = 5°E
Heading = 85° (M)

A. 5°R
B. 5°L
C. 10°L
D. 10°R

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Given the following information, calculate the actual fuel at the destination for the Commercial fight. Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme WITHOUT variations applies.

Assume that the actual fuel consumption is maintained at the same rate.
Total distance from A to B: 320 NM
Fuel remaining after 1 hour 15 minutes: 589 US gal
Distance travelled after 1 hour 15 minutes: 119 NM
Average TAS: 115 kt
Wind component: 20 kt headwind
Trip Fuel: 1280 US gal
Planned average fuel flow: 380 US gal/h
Extra fuel: 0 gal
Discretionary Fuel: 0 gal

A. 55 US gal
B. 62 US gal
C. 146 US gal
D. 421 US gal

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A. AIC
B. AIP
C. The AUGUR GPS RAIM prediction tool
D. NOTAM

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Refer to Amsterdam - Chart 10-2B from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017.

Flight Planning 5
An aircraft is flying from MOLIX to the IAF. Assuming the ground speed is constant and the same as the maximum allowed airspeed at the IAF, how long will it take the aircraft to reach the clearance limit?

A. 7 minutes
B. 9 minutes
C. 11 minutes
D. 18 minutes

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Given:

Distance from departure to destination: 2500 NM
GS out: 540 kt
GS Home: 470 kt
What is the time of the PET from the departure point?

A. 129 min
B. 171 min
C. 28 min
D. 149

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Refer to figure: The figure depicts a fuel plan as created by a flight planning tool for a return flight LFPG-EIDW-LFPG.

Flight Planning 6
During the pre-flight preparations, the Operations Department calls the pilot and advises him/her to refuel at LFPG, due to some fuel-supply issues at EIDW. In order to reduce the environmental impact, the pilot consider the least possible fuel tankering. What is the minimum amount of fuel tankering to ensure the target fuel for EIDW-LFPG remains on board after landing at EIDW?

A. 5506 kg
B. 4432 kg
C. 7526 kg
D. 3495 kg

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Refer to NANTES - Charts 19-1, 19-2, 19-3 from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017.

Flight Planning 7
When Approaching Nantes, what is a valid Special VFR minimum?

A. VFR traffic must maintain a minimum distance of 800 m from clouds.
B. Arrivals from the east have to maintain an altitude of not more the 1000 ft AGL
C. Departures to the west have to maintain an altitude of not more than 1000 ft AMSL
D. The minimum ciling for Special VFR procedures is 700 ft AMSL.

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For this question use annex 033-104 rev. 05.11.2004 or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.7.2

Flight Planning 8
For the purpose of planning an extended range flight it is required that with a start of diversion mass of 550000 kg a diversion of 600 NM should be achieved in 90 minutes. Using the above table, the onl ylisted cruise technique to meet that requirement is:

A. M/KIAS 0.70/280
B. M/KIAS .74/330
C. LRC
D. M/KIAS .74/290

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  1. With a lower groundspeed, the actual timings will be later than the planned timings.
  2. The wind correction angle must be altered from a value to the right to a value to the left

A. Both 1 and 2 are correct
B. 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct
C. 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect
D. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect.

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For pre-flight planning purposes, what is the total fuel requred for the Commercial Air Transport flight in a Medium Range Jet Transport MRJT aeriplane, with no destination alternate, given the following information? Assume the Basic Fuel Scheme Without variation applies.

Estimated taxi time: 20 minutes at both departure and destination aerodromes
APU fuel flow: 115 kg/h
Taxi fuel flow: 11 kg/min
Planned APU usage at the parking position: zero
Total trip distance: 1131 NM
Average fuel flow: 2638 kg/h
TAS: 424 kt
Average wind component: +17 kt
Contingency fuel: 3% of the trip fuel
Holding fuel flow: 2400 kg/h
Extra fuel: 0 kg
Discretionary fuel: 0 kg

A. 8769 kg
B. 9209 kg
C. 8989 kg
D. 8389 kg

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Refer to Stuttgart 12-2 chart from Jeppesen GSPRM 2017.

Flight Planning 9
If you carry out an RNP approach to Runway 25 at Stuttgart airport, what will be the distance covered from the initial approach fix (IAF) to the Runway 25 threshold?

A. 20.4 NM
B. 21.3 NM
C. 12.7 NM
D. 26 NM

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Refer to Figures- Wjat equipment does the letter S indicate is being carried and is serviceable, when entered into ITEM 10 of the ICAO flight plan form?

Flight Planning 10
Note 1 – If the letter S is used, standard equipment is considered to be VHF, RTF, VOR and ILS, unless another combination is prescribed by the approproate ATS authority.

A. 20.4 NM
B. 21.3 NM
C. 12.7 NM
D. 26 NM

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VFR flights shall not be flown over the congested areas of cities at a height less than

A. 2000 ft above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 ft from the aircraft
B. 500 ft above the highest obstacle
C. the highest obstacle
D. 1000 ft above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft.

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Students Also Ask

Which ATPL question bank is the best?

There is no single “best” question bank for everyone, as each has unique features and styles. However, popular and highly regarded ATPL question banks include:
  • BGSonline (Bristol Groundschool) Known for comprehensive explanations and regular updates. Integrated with Bristol’s online learning system for students enrolled in its courses.
  • Aviation Exam Has a large, up-to-date question database and a user-friendly interface (including mobile apps). Offers detailed explanations and performance-tracking features.
  • Question Bank from PadPilot Often used alongside PadPilot textbooks; focuses on clarity and integration with its own study materials.
  • Other Providers There are several others (e.g., Aeropolit, ATPdigital) that cater to specific regional requirements or training organizations. When choosing a question bank, consider:
  • Currency/Updates: How frequently are they updated to match the latest exam question styles and regulatory changes?
  • Quality of Explanations: Do they provide thorough explanations or just the correct/incorrect answers?
  • User Interface & Practice Options: Is it easy to navigate, track your progress, and focus on weak areas?
  • Instructor/School Recommendations: If you’re enrolled in a flight school, see if they recommend a specific question bank to align with their curriculum.
However, one has to know that learning questions and answers is definately not a long-term solution. Pilots need to review their knowledge and constantly read and learn, so it's advisable to thoroughly study all ATPL subjects before going for an exam.

What is the hardest ATPL exam?

This is a very subjective question. In general, Meteorology is considered quite demanding. Principles of Flight and Fligh Planning as well. One of the "easist" is considered Air Law, even though a lot of students find it difficult.

How Many Questions are there in the ATPL exam?

The ATPL syllabus (particularly EASA) consists of 14 separate exam subjects, such as Principles of Flight, Air Law, Meteorology, Navigation, etc.
  • Each subject has its own set of questions, which can range anywhere from 20 to 80+ questions per exam.
  • The total number of questions you’ll face for all 14 subjects typically amounts to 700–800+ questions, though the exact count can change over time and may vary by authority (e.g., EASA vs. the UK CAA vs. other national CAAs).
  • Because the question pools are periodically updated, it’s crucial to use current study materials and question banks that reflect the latest regulations and question styles.

How hard is it to pass the ATPL ground school in the UK?

  • Breadth of Knowledge: ATPL ground school covers a wide range of topics, from technical subjects like Aircraft Systems and Performance to more theoretical subjects such as Flight Planning and Radio Navigation.
  • Pace & Workload: The courses are known for being intensive. Many students find that a rigorous daily study schedule is essential to keep up with the reading, practice questions, and mock exams.
  • Success Rate: While pass rates are generally reasonable, the difficulty should not be underestimated. Most training organizations provide a structured approach with practice exams, which significantly helps in passing on the first attempt.
  • Effective Study Tactics: Using a reputable question bank, attending ground school classes (online or in-person), and forming study groups are strategies many cadets use to handle the high volume of information.

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